Drug Inspector previous year Paper

Will you please like to share the last year question paper of APPSC Drug Inspector Exam??

[Arvind Kumar]

Yeah sure, here I am sharing the last year question paper of APPSC Drug Inspector Exam

1. All of the following ate psychotropic substances, except:
1. Amobarbital 2. Meprobamate
3. Barbital 4. All of the above
2. As per schedule P of Drugs and Cosmetics
Act, the Diphtheria toxoid has expiry period
of :
1. 6 months 2. 12 months
3. 2 years 4. 5 years
3. Chloramphenicol comes under schedule :
1. G 2. H
3. W 4. P
4. Example of Narcotic drug is :
1. Coca 2. Opium
3. Charas 4. Doxapram
5. Ergot and its preparation belongs to schedule :
1. P 2. Q
3. C1 4. L
6. Schedule X drug is :
1. Amphetamine 2. Cyclobarbital
3. Glutethimide 4. All of the above
7. Drug Inspector is appointed under section :
1. 19 2. 42
3. 21 4. 30
8. Schedule M and Y were introduced in Drugs
and Cosmetics Act in :
1. 1976 2. 1982
3. 1988 4. 1980
9. Example of Schedule G drug is :
1. Tetracycline 2. Ampicillin
3. Ibuprofen 4. Tolbutamide
10. Example of Schedule X drug is :
1. Diazepam 2. Emetine
3. Quinidine 4. Ciprofloxacin
11. Opium has been under legislative control
since :
1. 1820 2. 1857
3. 1925 4. 1949
12. Standards for mechanical contraceptives are given in schedule :
1. S 2 R
3. Q 4. T
13. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act has been divided
into ...... parts
1. 15 2. 16
3. 18 4. 24
14. The Central Drugs Laboratory is established
in :
1. Calcutta 2. Lucknow
3. Mumbai 4. Kasauli
15. The members of the D.T.A.B. hold the office
for :
1. 1 year 2. 3 years
3. 5 years 4. 7 years
16. The dose of a drug is 5 mg per kg body weight.
How much of the drug is required for a boy of
12 years weighing 21 kg ?
1. 0.5 mg 2. 1 mg
3. 1.5 mg 4. 2 mg
17. Morphine is the drug of choice in :
1. Urinary tract infection 2. Colic pain
3. Bronchial asthma 4. Cardiac asihma
18. Hypotensive effect of clonidine is due to its
action on :
1. -adrenergic receptor 2. -adrenergic receptor
3. H2-receptor 4. H1-receptor
19. Tetracyclines are avoided during pregnancy
because:
1. it is teratogenic
2. affects bone growth
3. causes discoloration of teeth
4. may cause abortion
20. Powerful cardiac stimulant is :
1. Digitoxin 2. Dopamine
3. Epinephrine 4. Dobutamine
21. One of the following is used in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis :
1. Carbenicillin 2. Cephalosporin
3. Pethidine 4. Pyrazinamide
22. -blockers are contraindicated in patients
with :
1. Supraventricular tachycardia
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Coroqary artery disease
4. Jacksonian seizure
23. Which of the following is directly acting sympathomimetic agent ?
1. Ephedrine 2. Amphetamine
3. Dopamine 4. Thiopental sodium
24. Streptomycin is more effective at :
1. Acidic pH 2. Alkaline pH
3. Neutral pH 4. any pH
25. The most common drug causing anaphylaxis is :
1. Streptomycin 2. Indomethacin
3. Penicillin 4. Doxycycline
26. The most common side effect of verapmnil is :
1. Bradycardia 2. Psoriasis
3. Cardiac arrhythmia. 4. Constipation
27. The anthelmintic drug acting by producing flaccid paralysis of the worm is :
1. Stibophen 2. Diethyl carbamazine
3. Piperazine 4. Mebendazole
28. Drug resistance is commonly produced by :
1. Ethambutol 2. Rifampicin
3. Pyrazinamide 4. INH
29. Propranolol is contraindicated in patients
with :
1. Angina pectoris 2. Supraventricular arrhythmia
3. Hypertension 4. Glaucoma
30. The most serious side effect of phenyl
butazone is :
1. Headache 2. Epigastric distress
3. Agranulocytosis 4. Blurred
31. Drug[ that often cause tachycardia when
given in low dose is :
1. Propranolol 2. Verapamil
3. Nitroglycerin 4. Chloroquine
32. Calcium channel blocker with predominant peripheral action is :
1. Nicardepine 2. Lidoflazine
3. Nifedepine 4. Diltiazem
33. The following antihypertensive drugs that
tend to elevate plasma triglycerides are :
1. ACE inhibitors
2. Calcium channel blockers
3. -Adrenolytic receptor blocker
4. Thiazide diuretics
34. Angiotensin II blocker is :
1. Histamine 2. Saralasin
3. Diltiazem 4. Trimethaphan
35. Which one of the following is not a pharmacological effect of morphine ?
1. Constriction of the pupil 2. C.N.S. depression
3. Diarrhoea 4. Respiratory failure
36. The antiarrhythmic drug quinidine is :
1. (+) stereoisomer of quinine
2. (–) stereoisomer of quinine
3. (+) Racemic mixture of quinine
4. None of the above
37. The xenobiotic that does not cause nephro-toxicity is :
1. Streptozocin 2. Cisplatin
3. Gentamicin 4. Isoniazid
38. Ibuprofen is a :
1. acetic acid derivative
2. propionic acid derivative
3. butanoic acid derivative
4. None of the above
39. Which is the alkylating agent in the following ?
1. Cyclophosphamide 2. Methotrexate
3. Allopurinol 4. Rifampicin
40. The best synthesis for chloramphenicol starts with :
1. p-Nitroaniline 2. p-Nitrophenol
3. p-Nitroacetophenone 4. p-Nitrobenzoic acid
41. Gray baby syridrome is due to the indiscriminate use of :
1. Streptomycin 2. Chloramphenicol
3. Penicillin. 4. Tetracycline
42. Vincristine is a :
1. Antineoplastic 2. Antiviral
3. Antifungal 4. Antibiotic
43. Penicillinase resistant penicillin is :
1. Amoxycillin 2. Ampicillin
3. Penicillin V 4. Methicillin
44. Which of the following antineoplastic agent is metabolized by xanthine oxidase ?
1. 6-Mercaptopurine 2. Vincristine
3. Chlorambucil 4. 6-Thioguanine
45. The drug used’ in hypertensive patients for
the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma is :
1. Methyl DOPA 2. Guanethidine
3. Clonidine 4. Quinidine
46. Which of the hypnotic is used in the treatment
of abstinence phenomena ?
1. Chloral hydrate 2. Methyprylon
3. Paraldehyde 4. Glutethimide
47. Hypnotic used in gena tic patients is :
1. Methyprylon 2. Meprobamate
3. Chloral hydrate 4. Ethinamate
48. Sedative exhibiting drug anticholinergic
activity is :
1. Chloral hydrate 2. Glutethimide
3. Meprobamate 4. Paraldehyde
49. H2 receptor antagonists have therapeutic
value for patients with :
1. Hepatitis 2. Rhinitis
3. Gastric hypersecretion 4. Dermatitis
50. The barbiturate that can cause choleresis is :
1. Thiopental 2. Cyclobarbital.
3. Phenobarbital 4. Amobarbital
51. Pyrental pamoate is used in the treatment of :
1. Typhoid 2. Amoebiasis
3. Pinworm infection 4. Schistosomiasis
52. Phenytoin metabolism is inhibited by :
1. Chloramphenicol 2. Disulfiram
3. Dicumarol 4. All of the above
53. In chloramphenicol resistant typhoid, the
drug prescribed is :
1. Streptomycin 2. Penicillin
3. Ciprofloxacin 4. Rimantadine
54. The metal used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is :
1. Ag 2. Au
3. Cu 4. Sb
55. For the patient with hepatic coma, the choice
of antibiotic is :
1. Meperidine 2. Penicillin G
3. Neomycin 4. Erythromycin
56. One of the drug is excreted primarily by
renal tubular secretion :
1. Gonorrhoea 2. Kanamycin
3. Tetracycline 4. Carbenicillin
57. Most commonly used antimicrobial agent
for intraperitoneal dialysis fluid is :
1. Chlorocre.sol 2. Benzalkonium chloride
3. Isopropyl alcohol 4. None of the above
58. Shingella are very similar to salmonella but
non-motile and are responsible for :
1. Gamma 2. Bacillary dysentery
3. Scarlet fever 4. Diphtheria
59. Penicillinase is produced by :
1. Treponema palladium
2. Clostridium titania
4. Bacillus megaterum
4. Streptococcus pyrogenes
60. Which of the following radiations is used in sterilization ?
1. Gamma 2. X-ray
3. Alpha 4. Positron
61. The drug of choice for streptococcal infection
is :
1. Tetracycline 2. Erythromycin
3. Penicillin 4. Ciprofloxacin
62. Methotrexate is an antagonist of :
1. Cobalamine 2. Folic acid
3. Riboflavin 4. Tocopherol
63. Antiviral activity of zidovudine is antagonized
by :
1. Thymidine and ribavarin
2. Cephalosporins
3. Dapsone and Rifampicin
4. Streptomycin and Penicillin G
64. Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic
shock is :
1. Diosgenin 2. Epinephrine
3. Dopamine 4. Ouabain
65. Candidiasis is treated with :
1. Griseofulvin 2. Ampicillin
3. Rifampicin 4. Nystatin
66. Which of the following adverse effect is characteristic of ampicillin ?
1. Maculopapular rash 2. Spondylitis
3. Nephritis 4. Stomatitis
67. Optic neuritis is chief adverse effect of :
1. Sulpha drugs 2. Pyrazinamide
3. Rifampicin 4. Ethambutol
68. Ciprofloxacin inhibits the metabolism of :
1. Xanthine 2. Theophylline
3. Caffeine 4. Thyroxine
69. Which of the following drug is not a macrolide antibiotic?
1. Erythromycin 2. Spiramycin
3. Oleandomycin 4. Vancomycin
70. A steroidal antibiotic is :
1. Fucidin 2. Bacitracin
3. Aminophylline 4. Clindamycin
71. The use of morphine is contraindicated in :
1. Migrate 2. Corpulmonale
3. Myocardial infarction 4. Convulsions
72. Which of the following agent is used in the
treatment of partial seizures and tonic-elonic seizures?
1. Sodium valproate 2. Carbama zepine
3. Methosuximide 4. Diazepam
73. The preferred treatment of status epileptics
is Intravenous administration of :
1. Ethosuxime 2. Sodium valproate
3. Diazepam 4. Chloramphenicol
74. The drug used in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia is :
1. Phenytoin 2. Carbamazepine
3. Amantadine 4. Ethosuximide
75. Death from overdose of narcotic-analgesic is
resulted from :
1. Shock 2. Convulsions
3. Respiratory depression 4. Cardiac arrhythmias
76. The development of an abstinence syndrome
in a heroin user is prevented by :
1. Nalbuphine 2. Naloxone
3. Methadone 4. Dextropropoxyphen
77. Heroin differs from morphine in respects
except :
1. Synthetic congener of morphine
2. More constipation
3. Slowly metabolized to morphine
4. Contains acetyl group
78. The antiepileptic which inhibits the seizures induced by administration of picrotoxin is :
1. Phenytoin 2. Carbamazepine
3. Ethosuximide 4. Sodium valproate
79. Phenytoin metabolism is inhibited by :
1. Chloramphenicol 2. Disulfiram
3. Dicumarol 4. All of the above
80. Mechanism of action cephalosporins involves
the inhibition of:
1. N-Iactamates
2. Peptide synthesis
3. Transpeptidase enzymes
4. Synthesis of cytoplasmic membrane
81. The antineoplastic agent that is classified as
an alkylating agent is :
1. Blemocyin 2. Chlorambucil
3. Methotrexate 4. Busulfan
82. Salmonella typhi is sensitive to :
1. Cephalexin 2. Cephalothin
3. Cephaloridine 4. Cephrodine
83. Drug of choice in epilepsy with pregnancy :
1. Carbamazepine 2. Ethosuximide
3. Sodium valproate 4. Carbidopa
84. Which of the following is a laxative antacid :
1. Mg salts 2. Al salts
3. Ca salts 4. Fe salts
85. Which of the following is a constipating
antacid?
1. Aluminium hydroxide 2. Magnesium hydroxide
3. Sodium carbonate 4. Sodium bicarbonate
86. Which of the following blocks -1 adrenergic receptors?
1. Minoxidil 2. Methyldopa
3. Prazocine 4. Oxyprenol
87. Digitalis overdose can be reversed by administration of :
1. Phenytoin 2. Calcium
3. Sodium
4. Fab fragments of digoxin specific antibody
88. Drug of choice in ringworm infection is :
1. Clotrimazole 2. Dapsone
3. Nystatin 4. Griseofulvin
89. Reserpine is contraindicated in patients with a
history of :
1. Epilepsy 2. Hypertension
3. Mental depression 4. Schizophrenia
90. Drug of first choice in supraventricular
arrhythmia is :
1. Cinchonidine 2. Procainamide
3. Verapanill 4. Amiodarone
91. Sterilization temperature for aqueous solution in autoclave is :
1. 72°C 2. 121°C
3. 147°C 4. 160°C
92. Infected blood products may produce serum
hepatitis due fu the presence of :
1. Hepatitis A virus 2. Hepatitis B virus
3. Hepatitis C virus 4. None of the above
93. In the official bioassay Erythromycin the
strain, used is :
1. Bacillus subtilis 2. Micrococcus luteous
3. Salmonella typhi 4. Escherichia coli
94. In the microbiological assay of Bacitracin IP
the test organism used is :
1. Staphylococcus aureus2. Staphylococcus epidermidis
3. Micrococcus luteous 4. Bacillus pumilus
95. The time required for division of Escherichia
coli is :
1. 10 minutes 2. 20 minutes
3. 5 hours 4. 20 hours
96. Rickettsia rickettsia are responsible for
spreading a disease known as :
1. Epidemic typhus 2. Scrub typhus
3. Trench fever
4. Rocky mountain spotted fever
97. Escherichia coli belongs to the family :
1. Pseudomonadaceae 2. Spirillaceae
3. Enterobacteriaceae 4. Micrococcaceae
98. Glycerol may be used as a preservative upto percentage of :
1. 15 2. 50
3. 1 4. 0.1
99. Originally oxytetracycline is known as :
1. Aureomycin 2. Erythromycin
3. Terramycin 4. Viomycin
100. The bacteria that can remain alive for long
period in dried condition is :
1. Vibrio cholera 2. Bordetella pertussis
3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
4. Clostridium tetany
101. The causative organism for gas gangrene is :
1. Yersinia 2. Bordello pertussis
3. Treponema pallidum 4. Clostridium perfringens
102. Staphylococcus aureus produces a pigment
during their growth having :
1. Red, color 2. Green color
3. Yellow color 4. Black color
103. In the Rideal Walker test the strain used is :
1. Bacillus subtilis 2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Pasteurel spastics 4. Salmonella typhi
104. An organic acid widely used in the treatment of
skin condition is :
1. Propionic acid 2. Sorbic acid
3. Undecanoic acid 4. Benzoic acid
105. A substance that holds the number of bacteria
at a constant level is known as :
1. Antagonizes 2. Inhibitor
3. Antiseptic 4. Bacteriostatic
106. Identify the molecule which controls the biosynthesis of proteins in living organisms :
1. DNA 2. RNA
3. Purines 4. Pyrimidines
107. All amino acids are optically active, except :
1. Tryptophan 2. Phenylalanine
3. Valine 4. Glycine
108. D-mannose is present in some plant products
like :
1. Resins 2. Pectins
3. Mucilage 4. Gums
109. Galactose is a main constituent of :
1. Milk sugar 2. Honey
3. Cane sugar 4. Chitin
110. Glycogen is present in all body tissues, except:
1. Liver 2. Brain
3. Kidney. 4. Stomach
111. The following ions help in enzymatic transfer of phosphate from ATP to pyruvic acid :
1. Sodium 2. Calcium
3. Magnesium 4. Potassium
112. During glycolysis of glucose the energy liberated in the absence of oxygen is known as :
1. Oxygenesis 2. Glyconeogenesis
3. Glycogenolysis 4. Anaerobic fermentation
113. Treatment of pentoses with a concentrated mineral acid yields a cyclic aldehyde known as
1. Pentaldehyde 2. Cyclopental
3. Hexaldehyde 4. Furfural
114. Hypoglycemia depresses insulin secretion
and thus increases the rate of :
1. Hydrolysis 2. Reduction
3. Gluconeogenesis 4. Respiratory acidosis
115. Milk sugar is known as :
1. Fructose 2. Glucose
3. Sucrose 4. Lactose
116. An essential agent for converting glucose to glycogen in liver is :
1. Lactic acid 2. GTP
3. UTP 4. Pyruvic acid
117. Which of the following hormones is not
involved in carbohydrate metabolism :
1. ACTH 2. Glucagon
3. Vasopressin 4. Growth Hormone
118. The distinguishing test between monosaccharides and disaccharides is :
1. Bials test 2. Seliwanoff’s test
3. Barfoed’s test 4. Hydrolysis test
119. The intermediate in hexose monophosphate
shunt is :
1. D-Ribulose 2. D-Ribose
3. D-Xylose 4. D-Lyxose
120. On boiling, Benedict’s solution in not reduced by
1. Sucrose 2. Lactose
3. Maltose 4. Fructose
121. The sweetening agent commonly used in the chewable tablets is
1. Sucrose 2. Cyclamate sodium
3. saccharin sodium 4. mannitol
122. Water attack test is used to identify the
alkalinity in :
1. Type I Glass 2. Type II Glass
3. Type III Glass 4. All the above types
123. A type of flow in which viscosity increases
when the substance is agitated is :
1. Plastic 2. Pseudoplastic
3. Dilatant 4. Thixotropic
124. The ingredients mentioned below are
commonly used as the coating agents for film coating, except :
1. Cellulose acetate phthalate
2. Carnauba wax
3. Hydroxyethyl cellulose
4. Sodium CMC
125. The Pharmacy Council of India is constituted
by :
1. Central Government 2. State Government
3. Parliament 4. Legislative Assembly
126. Poorly mahufactured tablets may have small pinholes on the surface. This phenomenon is
called:
1. Picking 2. Mottling
3. Leaching 4. Cracking
127. One thousand nanogram equals to one :
1. Milligram 2. Microgram
3. Picogram 4. Gram
128. One of the following ingredients which
improves the flow property of granules is :
1. Glidant 2. Emollient
3. Lubricant 4. Surfactant
129. Gamma-Globulin is separated from serum by :
1. Agglutination 2. Dialysis
3. Centrifugation 4. Salting out
130. The correct equivalent for – 10o C is :
1. –10oF 2. +22°F
3. –18°F 4. +14°F
131. Ingredients used for capsulation in soft
gelatin capsules should flow by gravity at a temperature not exceeding :
1. 35°C 2. 30°C
3. 25°C 4. 20°C
132. Sterility test for the materials meant for
surgical sutures requires incubation for :
1. 7 days 2. 14 days
3. 21 days 4. 28 days
133. As per G.M.P. permitted limit of solid
contents in water for injection is :
1. 100 ppm 2. 1 ppm
3. 0.1 ppm 4. 10 ppm
134. License for wholesale of drugs specified in schedule C and C1 is issued in form :
1. 20A 2. 20B
3. 21B 4. 22A
135. In Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules thereunder, list of substances that should
be sold on retail only on prescription of Registered Medical Practitioner is given in :
1. Schedule H 2. Schedule V
3. Schedule X 4. Schedule Q
136. Standards for ophthalmic solutions are
included in the schedule :
1. W 2. C
3. FF 4. U
137. The Stick test is used to determine suscepti- bility of :
1. Diphtheria 2. Syphilis
3. Tuberculosis 4. Typhoid
138. Mantoux test is used for the detection of :
1. Serum albumin 2. Tuberculosis
3. Antigen 4. Vaccine
139. Amplum means :
1. Tablespoonful 2. Wine glass
3. Dessert spoonful 4. Teaspoonful
140. The incompatibility of quinine sulfate with potassium iodide and sulfuric acid is known as :
1. Hyposensitive reaction
2. Hypersensitive reaction
3. Herapathite reaction
4. Allergic reaction
141. Due to incompatibility reasons ferric salts should not be prescribed in the formulations
containing:
1. Alkaloids 2. Phenols
3. Salicylate 4. Volatile oils
142. Due to incompatibility reasons parabens
should not be added as preservative in :
1. Hematinic syrups 2. Cough syrups
3. Antibiotic syrups 4. Digestive syrups
143. The part of the prescription containing, a list
of ingredients with quantities is known as :
1. Enemas 2. Body weight
3. Subscription 4. Inscription
144. The adult dose of a drug is 60 mg, then the
dose of a 6-year child would be :
1. 30.mg 2. 20 mg
3. 15 mg 4. 10 mg
145. In-vivo incompatibility is known as :
1. Dose related incompatibility
2. Therapeutic incompatibility
3. Adjusted incompatibility
4. Tolerated incompatibility
146. The Clark’s formula for calculation of dose of a
drug is based on :
1. Age 2. Douches
3. Surface area 4. Drug activity
147. The main source of liquid paraffin is :
1. Animal 2. Mineral
3. Synthetic 4. Semisynthetic
148. As per Drugs and Cosmetics Act, the life
period of drugs is given in :
1. Schedule P 2. Schedule Q
3. Schedule S 4. Schedule FF
149. The dose of B.C.G. vacuum is :
1. 1 ml 2. 0.01 ml
3. 0.1 ml 4. 0.001 ml
150. Provisions applicable to blood banks in
Drugs and Cosmetics Act is :
1. Schedule F 2. Schedule X
3. Schedule G 4. Schedule H