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Old 28th October 2016, 05:29 PM
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Default RRB Chandigarh Previous Paper

I want the previous year question paper of Railway Recruitment Board Chandigarh exam so can you provide me?
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Old 29th October 2016, 09:33 AM
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Default Re: RRB Chandigarh Previous Paper

Ok, here I am providing you the previous year question paper of Railway Recruitment Board RRB Chandigarh exam

RRB Chandigarh exam question paper



1. If x means −, ÷ means +, + means ÷, − means x then find the value of 13 − 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100
(A) 1/760 (B) 76 (C) 176 (D) 186

2. If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain?
(A) 24 (B) 23 (C) 22 (D) 25

3. A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 : 15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?
(A) 6 : 30 (B) 6 : 00 (C) 6 : 15 (D) 4 : 20

4. Nivedita stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?
(A) 18 km (B) 8 km (C) 16 km (D) 10 km

5. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?
(A) Karishma (B) Kajal (C) Ankita (D) None of these

6. Radha and Saroj are ranked 10th and 16th respectively in a class of 37 students. What will be their ranks from the bottom in the class?
(A) 28th, 22nd (B) 27th, 21st (C) 28th, 20th (D) 27th, 22nd

7. If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?
(A) 24 (B) 57 (C) 58 (D) 27

8. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be—
(A) 8, 9, 8 (B) 9, 8, 8 (C) 10, 1, 6 (D) 10, 8, 9

9. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?
(A) 978626 (B) 112144 (C) 447355 (D) 869756

10. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is—
(A) 11 (B) 13 (C) 17 (D) 9

11. On dividing a number by 19, the difference between quotient and remainder is 9. The number is—
(A) 370 (B) 352 (C) 361 (D) 371

12. Mohan engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him Rs. 200 and a uniform after 10 days. The servant served only for 5 days and got Rs. 20 and a uniform. Find the price of the uniform.
(A) Rs. 80 (B) Rs. 120 (C) Rs. 140 (D) Rs. 160

13. If you subtract – 1 from + 1, what will be the result?
(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) 0 (D) 1

14. Find the value of 50 × 8.
(A) 40 (B) 200 (C) 8 (D) 0

15. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is—
(A) 24/5 % (B) 4 % (C) 3 % (D) 10/3 %

16. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is—
(A) 9% (B) 10% (C) 18% (D) 900/109 %

17. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?
(A) 50/144 % (B) 5% (C) 1/12 % (D) 5/24 %

18. A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is—
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 150 (D) 200

19. The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210°C to 380°C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?
(A) 28.50°C (B) 270°C (C) 300°C (D) 320°C

20. If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19 days; 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in—
(A) 10 days (B) 15 days (C) 12 days (D) 7 days

21. Total area of 64 small squares of a chess board is 400cm. There is 3 cm wide border around the chess board. What is the length of the side of the chess board?
(A) 17 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 26 cm (D) 23 cm

22. If the radius of a circle is increased to 3 times. Then how many times will its circumference be increased?
(A) 2 times (B) 1/3 times (C) 9 times (D) 3 times

23. A passenger train runs at the rate of 80 kmph. It starts from the station at some time. After 6 hours a goods trains leaves the station. The passenger train overtakes the goods train after 4 hours. The speed of goods train is—
(A) 32 km/h (B) 50 km/h (C) 45 km/h (D) 64 km/h

24. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is ratio between rate in still water and rate of current?
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 3

25. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 6 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened alternately for 1 minute each. In what time will they fill the cistern?
(A) 5 minutes (B) 17/3 times (C) 45/7 minutes (D) 5/4 minutes

26. Find the value of 0.0016—
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.04 (C) 0.8 (D) 4

27. By what number must 32 be multiplied to make it a perfect square?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 2

Directions (28-30): Fill up the blanks with the appropriate words.

28. Mr. Jagdish is confident _________ his success.
(A) about (B) of (C) for (D) regarding

29. He persisted _________ doing things in a manner in which he had been doing them.
(A) on (B) at (C) about (D) in

30. An exhibition _________ the new trends in computer education was held in Delhi.
(A) into (B) for (C) of (D) on

Directions (31-35): In the following questions choose the word that can be substituted for the given words.

31. A disease which spreads by contact
(A) infection (B) contagious (C) contiguous (D) uxoring

32. A science which studies insects
(A) Entomology (B) Epistemology (C) Entymology (D) Biology

33. That which cann’t be corrected
(A) Ineligible (B) Ineluctable (C) Insortable (D) Incorrigible

34. One who believes easily
(A) sedulous (B) credible (C) assiduous (D) credulous

35. A speech made for first time
(A) simultaneous (B) drawn (C) extempore (D) maiden

Direction (36-39): Write word which is most opposite in meaning of the given word.

36. Obstinate
(A) Hoary (B) Amenable (C) Tenable (D) Tender

37. Pernicious
(A) Salutary (B) Recondite (C) Innocuous (D) Disastrous

38. Radical
(A) Singular (B) Unusual (C) Normal (D) Conservative

39. Mention
(A) Impart (B) Observe (C) Attend (D) Conceal

Direction (40-42): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the word.

40. Sedentary
(A) Material (B) Sluggish (C) Slash (D) Mischief

41. Pertinacious
(A) Stubborn (B) Tremulous (C) Stupid (D) Stingy

42. Gregarious
(A) Clumsy (B) Pugnacious (C) Turbulent (D) Saciable

43. In Rajasthan, Mount Abu, famous for Jain temples is known for—
(A) Abu temple (B) Ranakpura temple (C) Dilwara temple (D) Marble temple

44. The United Nations Organisation was formed on—
(A) October 20, 1945 (B) November 11, 1944 (C) October 24, 1945 (D) June 26, 1946

45. In Vedic literature the meaning of the word ‘Nishk’ was ornament. It was used in Artharva Veda as—
(A) Weapon (B) Agricultural implements (C) Script (D) Coin

46. The executive in India is directly responsible to the—
(A) President (B) Judiciary (C) People (D) Legislature

47. The major producer of copper is—
(A) Kerala (B) Rajasthan (C) Odisha (D) Madhya Pradesh

48. Boys scout and Girls Guide movements were formed by—
(A) Charles Andies (B) General Ramphel (C) John Quat (D) Weden Powel

49. In history the Chola rulers are famous for which type of administration?
(A) Central (B) Urban (C) State (D) Village administration

50. Chanakya was known by the name—
(A) Samudragupta (B) Vishnugupta (C) Shrigupta (D) None of these

51. The largest reserve of crude oil is in the country—
(A) Iran (B) Iraq (C) Saudi Arab (D) Kuwait

52. The Jainism propounded the complete knowledge as—
(A) Jin (B) Ratna (C) Kaivalya (D) Nirvana

53. The rotational motion of earth is maximum at the—
(A) North pole (B) Tropic of Capricorn (C) Equator (D) Tropic of cancer

54. Silicon dioxide is used in—
(A) Cement production (B) Cutting hard precious metals (C) Glass manufacture (D) None of these

55. In which of the following chemical energy is converted into electrical energy?
(A) Dynamo (B) Thermopile (C) Battery (D) Atom bomb

56. If the atmosphere is removed from the earth—
(A) Day will lengthen (B) Night will lengthen (C) Both will remain same (D) Both will be equal

57. In Kushana period the maximum development was observed in the field of—
(A) Religion (B) Art (C) Literature (D) Architecture

58. In rice production Indic is ranked in the world—
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth

59. The brightest star in the sky is—
(A) Proxima Centauri (B) Bernard (C) Nebula (D) Cirius

60. The number of permanent member nations in the UN Security Council is—
(A) 10 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 15

61. From which mine diamond is extracted?
(A) Panna (B) Golkunda (C) Jaipur (D) None of these

62. Like Poland in Europe which state in India is large?
(A) Bihar (B) Odisha (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Maharashtra

63. The capital of Vijayanager empire. Hampi was situated on the bank of the river—
(A) Krishna (B) Pennar (C) Tungbhadra (D) Godavari

64. The land shape formed at the drainage site of the Chanbal river is—
(A) Ramp (B) Rift (C) Delta (D) None of these

65. Which of the following rivers passes through Himachal Pradesh?
(A) Sutlej (B) Jhelum (C) Ravi (D) Chenab

66. Rigmies are related to—
(A) Asia (B) Europe (C) Africa (D) America

67. Mettur dam is situated on the river—
(A) Krishna (B) Cauvery (C) Narmada (D) Mahanadi

68. Most abundant element in maximum rocks is—
(A) Silicon (B) Carbon (C) Iron (D) None of these

69. The old name of African country Ghana is—
(A) Abisinia (B) Congo (C) Gold Coast (D) Tanganika

70. Who first deciphered the Ashokan inscriptions?
(A) James Princep (B) James Williams (C) John Munro (D) None of these

71. The foundation of Indian Vedanta philosophy is—
(A) Ram Charit Manas (B) Mahabharat (C) Puranas (D) Upanishad

72. In which Satyagraha movement of Mahatma Gandhi women participated most?
(A) Quit India (B) Non-cooperation (C) Salt (D) Bardoli

73. The noble gas is—
(A) Helium (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) Hydrogen

74. In which part of the Constitution, the separation of executive and judiciary has been described?
(A) Preamble (B) Fundamental rights
(C) Directive principles of state policy (D) Seventh schedule

75. Who administers the Union Territory?
(A) Council of Ministers (B) Governor (C) Former Governor (D) President

76. The spherical shape of rain drops is due to—
(A) Surface tension (B) Viscosity (C) Gravity (D) Atmospheric pressure

77. Which is not an electric resistant?
(A) Lac (B) Glass (C) Charcoal (D) Ebonite

78. The first black Nobel prize winner of literature in the world is—
(A) Tom Morrison (B) Luther King (C) John King (D) None of these

79. Which of the following planets has the highest period of revolution around the sun?
(A) Mercury (B) Earth (C) Mars (D) None of these

80. The headquarter of Asian Development Bank is in—
(A) Geneva (B) Manila (C) Bangkok (D) Jakarta

81. Which of the following elements is found in free state?
(A) Iodine (B) Magnesium (C) Sulphur (D) Phosphorus

82. In which disease blood does not clot?
(A) Thrombosis (B) Haemophilia (C) Pneumonia (D) None of these

83. The Ajanta caves are situated in—
(A) Maharashtra (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Tamil Nadu (D) None of these

84. National Codet Corps was established in—
(A) 1948 (B) 1946 (C) 1947 (D) 1950

85. The first Yoga University was established at—
(A) Bodh Gaya (B) Mumbai (C) Monghyr (D) Kolkata

86. The biggest glacier of India is—
(A) Siachin (B) Yamanotri (C) Chunhari (D) Gangotri

87. The number of schedules in Indian Constitution is—
(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) None of these

88. The Commonwealth games were recently held in—
(A) Britain (B) Canada (C) Australia (D) India

89. Which of the following did not come to India?
(A) Megasthanese (B) Columbus (C) Vasco De Gama (D) Fahein

90. Double fault is related to—
(A) Footbal (B) Rugby (C) Tennis (D) None of these

91. Which of the following countries is the biggest producer of milk?
(A) Pakistan (B) Australia (C) America (D) India

92. Who is the Indian Mass Universe 2006 in India?
(A) Neha Kapoor (B) Neha Dhupia (C) Priyanka Sud (D) None of these

93. CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK?
(A) NUTL (B) NTTJ (C) NTTL (D) LTRS

94. LO : PK : : IT : ?
(A) GT (B) SH (C) MN (D) FU

95. Which of these is the largest railway zone?
(A) Central Railway (B) Southern Railway (C) Eastern Railway (D) Northern Railway

Answers:
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (A)
71. (D) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (A) 79. (D) 80. (B)
81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (C)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95 (D)
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