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Old 11th October 2014, 04:20 PM
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Default SBI Associate Banks PO Exam Question Paper

Can any of you here please share the last year question paper of SBI Associate Banks PO Exam???
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  #2  
Old 13th October 2014, 02:00 PM
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Default Re: SBI Associate Banks PO Exam Question Paper

Here I am sharing the last year question paper of SBI Associate Banks PO Exam
SBI & SBI ASSOCIATES PO EXAM paper
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-15): Read the following
passage carefully and answer
the questions given below it. Certain
words are given in bold to help you to
locate them while answering some of.
the questions.
Though the last twenty-five years
have seen China dazzle the world with
its excellent economic performance it
has shied away from playing the kind
of active role in international affairs
that would seem commensurate with
its economic weight. This is because
traditionally China's politics have
been defined by the need for economic
development above all else. In the
past China's authorities have tended
to downplay the country's international
clout, choosing to stress instead its
developing country status and limited
military capabilities. Such modest
rhetoric was intended to allay the
fears that China's rise was causing
across its immediate neighbourhood.
That Beijing is finally acknowledging
its status as a major player in the
international system is evidenced by
the fact that the President has formally
developed a theory of international
relations; the concept of harmonious
world. The concept, encompassing
broad notions of multilateralism,
prosperity for all through common
development and tolerance for
diversity has left world opinion perplexed.
These are commendable
objectives but the theory is short on
specifics regarding the means to
achieve them.
China's recent willingness to be
a more, active player internationally
stems from complex factors. The country's
economic strength-having acquired
the largest foreign exchange
reserves in the world - is undeniable
and reports favour it to be the largest
economy in the next quarter of a cen-
] tury. For sustained double digit eco-
I nomic growth China thus has no
choice but to become more active internationally.
Moreover as a major
proportion of the oil and other natural
resources that China needs to feed
its growing economy are imported.
Beijing has to aggressively woo the
countries rich in energy resources,
which also represent emerging markets
for Chinese products. To ensure
a stable security environment within
the region and thus facilitate economic
growth China played an active role
in facilitating negotiations with
North Korea. Destabilization of a
potential flashpoint like the Korean
peninsula would lead to a flood of refugees
crossing the border, interrupting
careful plans of economic rejuvenation
of China's North - East. China's
growing influence has caused a
shift in the geopolitical status quo
and its influence is beginning to replace
that of the United States and
European powers in Africa. China's
new diplomacy though has had its
share of critics who have expressed
their unease at China's military modernization
programme and its willingness
to deal with regimes widely
condemned as corrupt and oppressive.
Despite this when the Africa was in
need of aid and infrastructure or the
US needed help in negotiating with
Korea they turned to China. By taking
a lead in a variety of international
and regional forums, initiating bilateratl
and military exchanges and
dispensing aid and technical assistance
in parts of the world where traditional
powers are cautious to tread
China has signaled that its days of
sitting on the sidelines, content to let
others shape world affairs are emphatically
over.
1. Why has China traditionally
been a passive spectator in global
affairs ?
(l)To safeguard its oil resources
(2) To maintain security in its vicinity
(3) To conceal its economic predicament
(4) To focus on domestic economic
growth
(5) Economic dominance of the
US
2. Which of the following best describes
China's current international
status?
(1) Cause of insecurity among
developing nations
(2) Largest economy in the world
(3) Largest donor of aid to developing
countries
(4) Pioneer of implementing a
"harmonious world" philosophy
(5) None of these
3. What has been the fallout of China's
increased participation in
world affairs ?
(1) International scrutiny of its
economic policies
(2) Growth of corruption among
its politicians
(3) Its influence and prestige
have grown substantially
(4) Its growth rate has stabilized
(5) None of these
4. On which of the following factors
is China's economic growth dependent
?
(A) Increased supply of oil and
other natural resources to developed
countries.
(B)Success of harmonious world
policy.
(C)Political stability in Africa.
(l)Only(C) (2) Only (A)
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(5)None of these
5. Which of the following is TRUE
in the context of the passage ?
(1) China's current political
standing internationally is
disproportionate to its financial
strength
(2) China is a reluctant participant
in military dialogues
(3) The harmonious world theory
is the only utilitarian remedy
to the current challenges
facing the world
(4) The US has recognized and
acknowledged China's growing
international reputation
(5) China has stopped dealing
with corrupt countries because
of international pressure
6. The main purpose behind
Beijing's intervention in North
Korea is to
(1) ensure that the US acknowledges
China's growing military
influence''
(2) prevent any hindrances to its
domestic economic development
programmes
(3) protect its financial investment
in neighbouring countries.
(4) provide humanitarian assistance
to one of its strongest
allies Korea
(5) None of these
7. Which of the following CANNOT
be said about China's international
relations theory ?
(l)The theory is ambiguous in
nature .,
(2) The theory reflects China's
realization that it occupies a
vital place in global affairs
(3) It promotes the concept of
common development for all
nations
(4) It is a theory which explains
China's sustained growth
rate
(5) It emphasizes achieving
prosperity through universal
development
8. Which of the following is NOT a
step taken by China to cement
its role as a world leader ?
(A) Providing aid to countries
when other nations are unwilling
to do so
(B)Curtailing its military modernization
programme to reassure
neighbouring countries
(C)Negotiating bilateral treaties
only with countries with
good human rights records
(1) Only (A)
(2) Both (A) and (B)
(3) Both (B) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) None of these
9. Which of the following is an outcome
of Beijing's role in Africa ?
(1) America's influence in the region
has reduced
(2) Instability in the region
(3) The amount of aid from Europe
and other countries has
doubled
(4) The balance of power in Africa
has shifted in favour of Europe
over the US
(5) None of these
10. Which of the following is / are responsible
for China's active international
participation ?
(A) Rapid economic growth as a
result of selling its surplus
foreign exchange reserves
(B)The need to explore and expand
to new markets
(C)The need to modernize its
armed forces
(1) Only (A)
(2) Both(A) and (B)
(3)Only(B)
(4) Both (B) and (C)
(5) None of these
Directions (11-13): Choose the
word which is most similar in meaning
to the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.
11. Sustained:
(1) sporadic
(2) confirmed
(3) steady
(4) supported
(5) encouraging
12. Potential
(1) promise (2) talent
(3) opportunity (4) capable
(5) possible
13. Encompassing
(1) surrounding
(2) incorporating
(3) enveloping
(4) accepting
(5) dealing
Directions (14-15): Choose the
word which is most opposite in meaning
to the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.
14. Commendable
(1) valuable (2) unreliable
(3)undeserved (4)unworthy
(5) deficient
15. Allay
(1) strengthen (2) alleviate
(3) grow (4) expedite
(5) discourage
Directions (16-25): In each question
below, a sentence is given with a
part of it printed in bold type. That
part may contain a grammatical error.
Each sentence is followed by
phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4). Find out '
which phrase should replace the
phrase given in bold to correct the error,
if there is any, and to make the
sentence grammatically meaningful
and correct. If the sentence ii> correct
as it is and 'No correction is required.'
mark (5) as the answer.
16. A nation that had been once
tried to kill him was the first to
embrace him.
(1) had once been trying to
(2) had once tried to
(3) once had been tried to
(4) had to once try and
(5) No correction required
17. Had he known more about the
policies of the company, he might
not have accepted the offer.
(1) He had known more
(2) Did he know more
(3) Since not more was known
(4) If he would know more
(5) No correction required
18. His life is an example of how
the human will can flourish
even in harsh conditions.
(1) what the human will can
. (2) how the human can and will
(3) when the human will can
(4) where the human will can
(5) No correction required
19. The social worker passionately
stroked the annoyed passenger
in order that be pacified.
(1) to pacify him
(2) that to pacify
(3) to be pacified for
(4) that to be pacified with
(5). No correction required
20. They were no longer able to provide
the help their children
need.
(1) helped their children need
(2) help their children needed
(3) help that their children need
(4) help that their children
would need
(5) No correction required
21. You man be well organized in
your thoughts but what would
you propose may not be necessarily
acceptable on all occasions.
(1) what you would propose
(2) that you would propose
(3) what you propose
(4) what you would have proposed
(5) No correction required •
22. The striking difference between
the two contestants compatible
with each other for the match
was related to their age.
(1) compatible with one another

(2) compatible against one another
(3) competing with the other
(4) competing with each other
(5) No correction required
23. Market research and market
communication is so far being
confined to a handful of consumer
goods like soaps, cosmetics,
etc.
(1) is thus far being confined to
(2) have so far been confined to
(3) are so far being confined to
(4) have so far been confined
with
(.5) No correction required
24. If we rely on others for technology
upgradation, potential serious
damage may be caused.
(1) potentially serious damage
may
(2) serious potentially damage
may
(3) seriously potential damage
may
(4) seriously potential damage
might
(5) No correction required
25. The load-shedding, however justifiable
it may be, has been aggravating
the problems.
(1) has been aggravated
(2) have aggravated
(3) have been aggravating
(4) would have been aggravated
(5) No correction required
Directions (26-30): In each question
below a sentence with four words
printed in bold type is given. These
are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4).
One of these four words may be either
wrongly spelt or inappropriate in
the context of the sentence. Find out
the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate,
if any. The number of
that word is your answer. If all the
four words are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence,
mark(5) i.e. 'All Correct' as your
answer.
26. The economic imperative (1)/for
acquiring {2)1 technological
strengths do not warrant (3)/
repeatition (4)/ here. All Correct
(5)
27. The combination of a base of imported
technology and capabilities
(1)/ built up indigenous {2)1
led initially (3)/ to product and
process involvement (4)/ All
Correct (5)
28. If a country does not learn to
master these new realities of
life, (1)/ our aspirations to {2)1
ensure the prosperity of people
(3)/ may come to not.(4)/All Correct
(5)
29. Since vegetable and fruit consumption
will increase in future,
(l)/an appropriate choice
{2)1 considering agro-climate
input needs and economic (3)/returns
should be arrived at for
every region. (4)/All Correct(5)
30. An environmental (1)/ concern
that is likely to have {2)1
implications for (3)/ Indian agriculture
is the emission of gases
like methane and carbon dioxide
(4)/All Correct (5)
Directions (31-35) : Rearrange
the following six sentences (A), (B),
(C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence
to form a meaningful paragraph;
then answer the questions given
below them.
(A) There are a number of items
in the atomic energy programme
which are being made indigenously.
(B) Given the overall energy situation
in India, the use of nuclear
power in some measure is inescapable
even while thermal and hydro
power continue to be the dominant elements.
(C) However, commercial aspects
of exploiting nuclear capabilities,
especially for power-generation
programmes, have been recently given
high priority.
(D) Atomic energy programmes
have been subject to severe restrictions
for every obvious reasons as the
Department of Atomic Energy is becoming
self-reliant in areas in which
only a few countries have such capability.
(E) Even to meet these nuclear
power requirements, India critically
requires a commercial-level powergeneration
capability, with its commensurate
safety and nuclear waste
management arrangements.
(F) Thus, in Indian context energy
security is also crucial, perhaps
much more than it is for the U.S.A.,
because India imports a good part of
its crude oil requirements, paying for
it with precious foreign exchange.
31. Which of the following will be the
FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) (A) (2) (B)
(3) (C) (4) (D)
(5) (E)
32. Which of the following will be the
THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) (A) (2) (B)
(3) (C) (4) (D)
(5) (E)
33. Which of the following will be the
SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) (A) (2) (B)
(3) (C) (4) (D)
(5) (E)
34. Which of the following will be the
FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) (A) (2) (B)
(3) (C) (4) (D)
(5) (E)
35. Which of the following will be the
FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) (A) (2) (B)
(3) (C) (4) (D)
(5) (E)
Directions (36-50): In the following
passage, there are blanks, each of
which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage
and against each, five words are
suggested, one of which fits the blanks
appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
With the U.S. military tied down
on two fronts and the rest of the world
growing (361 to American power, the
challenges for Rice are as (37) as they
have been for any Secretary of State
in the past three decades. After six
years of tussling with others on Bush's
national-security team, Rice has seen
off her rivals and (38) as the principal
spokesperson for Bush's foreign
(39). Her reward has been to (40) responsibility
for selling a failed policy
in Iraq and (41) a legacy for Bush at
a time when (42) in the world are in
the mood to help her. "Bush is severely
(43) and has very little (44) or support
at home or abroad," says Leslie
Gelb, former president of the Council
on Foreign Relations. "That is £451
true for his Secretary of State. So they
are (46) flailing around."
That's a grim assessment, since
the (47) to international order are
(48) today than at any other time
since the end of the cold war. The most
immediate source of (49) emanates
from Iraq, where the country's civil
war risks (501 a region-wide conflict.
36. (1) resistant
(2) subservient
(3) immune
(4) cordial
(5) indifference
37. CI) obvious
(2) trivial
(3) superfluous
(4) daunting
(5) rewarding
38. (1) renamed
(2) emerged
(3) appointed
(4) entrusted
(5) visited
39. (1) aid (2) recognition
(3) policy (4) acceptability
(5) minister
40. (1) shirk (2) avoid
(3) transfer (4) visualize
(5) inherit
41. (1) focusing (2) framing
(3) escaping (4) salvage
(5) demolishing
42. (1) people (2) few
(3) diplomats (4) autocrats
(5) most
43. (1) intensified
(2) master-minded
(3) weakened
(4) projected
(5) supported
44. (1) credibility (2) difficulty
(3) majority (4) power
(5) enthusiasm
45. (1) not (2) uniformly
(3) remotely (4) partially
(5) also
46. (1) effectively (2) inadvertently
(3) basically (4) aimlessly
(5) not
47. (1) admirations
(2)threats
(3) pleasantries
(4) demands
(5) accolades
48. (1) louder
(2) fewer
(3) magnificent
(4) most
(5) bigger
49. (1) instability (2) fuel
(3) energy (4) peace
(5) atrocity
50. (1) defusing
(2) demolishing
(3) terminating
(4) igniting
(5) extinguishing
GENERAL AWARENESS,
MARKETING & COMPUTER
51. The Supreme Court, on May 9,
2011, stayed the Allahabad
High Court verdict that directed
division of acres of land
of the disputed Ram Janmabhoomi-
Babri Masjid site in Ayodhya.
(1)2.77 (2)3.25.
(3) 3.85 (4) 4.50
(5) None of these
52. The Supreme Court, on May 14,
2011, directed the Centre to release
five million tonnes of
foodgrains immediately for distribution
in most povertystricken
districts.
.(1)50. (2)100
(3) 150 (4) 200
(5) None of these
53. India and , in May 2011,
signed 34 pacts in New Delhi,
involving the private sector on
the economic side, especially in
IT & telecom, pharma, textiles,
leather and chemicals.
(1) Ukraine (2) Tajikistan
(3) Uzbekistan(4) Belarus
(5) None of these
54. At the 58th National Film
Awards announced in New Delhi
in May 2011, _ film Adaminte
Makan Abu was chosen
as the best feature film.
(l)Telugu (2) Tamil
(3) Kannada (4) Malayalam
(5) None of these
55. India, on May 21,2011, successfully
test-fired the indigenously
developed Astra interceptor
missile twice from Chandipur in
Orissa.
(1) air-to-air
(2) land-to-land
(3) land-to-air
(4) water-to-air
(5) None of these
56. Which country, in May 2011, saw
protests and counter-protests
against the soaring prices after
the government allowed the currency,
the Riifiyaa, to float in a
20 per cent band?
(1) Nepal
(2) Saudi Arabia
(3) Kuwait (4) Maldives
(5) None of these
57. , the billionaire investor who
once ran one of the world's largest
hedge funds, as found guilty
of fraud and conspiracy by a federal
jury in Manhattan in May
2011.
(l)Rajnish Sharma
(2) Raj Rajaratnam
(3) Roger Mathews
(4) Ray Burgess
(5) None of these
58. , in April 2011, lifted an
emergency law in force for 48
years and abolished the state
security court — an unpopular
institution where political prisoners
were tried.
(l)Iraq (2) Syria
(3) Iran (4) Egypt
(5) None of these
59. Scholar Lobsang Sangay was,
on April 27, 2011, elected
"prime minister" of "Tibetan
government-in-exile" to take
over the political duties relinquished
by Dalai Lama.
(1) Cambridge
(2) Oxford
(3) Harvard
(4) Berlin
(5) None of these
60. The Conference of Parties to the
Stockholm Convention in ,
on April 29, 2011, approved
elimination of production and
use. of Endosulfan and its isomers
worldwide.
(1) Geneva (2) Vienna
(3) Warsaw (4) Oslo
(5) None of these
51. As per the Economist Intelligence
Unit in May 2011, the
emerging-market share of Gulf
Cooperation Council trade
reached per cent by 2009, up
from 15 per cent in 1980.
(1)25 (2)35
(3)45 (4)55
(5) None of these
62. India, on May 9, 2011, announced
to fast track the FTA
negotiations with towards
taking the total bilateral trade
to $3 billion by 2014 from the
present $1 billion.
(1) Australia
(2) New Zealand
(3) Kenya
(4) Malaysia
(5) None of these
63. The CCEA, on May 11,2011, allowed
FDI in LLP firms, beginning
with the 'open' sectors such
as where monitoring is not
required.
(1) Mining (2) Power
(3) Airports
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
64. Nokia and Vodafone, on May 12,
2011, joined hands to launch
Nokia Life Tools services targeted
at providing Indian consumers
with access to relevant content
on .
(1) Agriculture
(2) Education and healthcare
(3) Entertainment
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
65. The RBI, on May 16, 2011, said
only companies with a net worth
of Rs. crore could use derivatives
to hedge against risk of
volatility in currency rates.
(1)100 (2)200
(3) 300 (4) 500
(5) None of these
66. Bank of America, on May 17,
2011, gave fresh shares worth
over Rs.72 lakh to as part of
his annual fee for being a director
of the U.S. banking major.
(DRatanTata
(2) Aditya Birla
(3) Mukesh Ambani
(4) Anil Ambani
(5) None of these
67. Steel Authority of India Limited
(SAIL), in May 2011, formed
a consortium of 15 Indian mining
and steel companies to
make foray into the iron ore
mines sector in .
(1) South Africa
(2) Colombia
(3) Zaire
(4) Afghanistan
(5) None of these
68. Prime Minister Manmohan
Singh, on May 20, 2011, dedicated
the world-class, 6 million
tonnes per annum refinery
to the nation.
(l)Surat (2)Bina
(3)Panipat (4)Nagpur
. (5) None of these
69. The Central Government, in
. May 2011, hiked the fuel subsidy
outgo burden of state-owned
ONGC from one-third to per
cent for 2010-11 fiscal.
(1)34.7 (2)35.6
(3)36.9 (4)38.8
(5) None of these
70. The Union Government, in May
2011, decided to revive the sick
public sector undertaking Scooters
India Limited, , by selling
its entire stake and its takeover.
(l)Nasik (2) Aran tsar
(3) Lucknow (4) Chandigarh
71. The Centre sm May 23, 2011,
spelled out its major initiative
to sell per cent stake in engineering
and electrical giant
BHEL to raise around,Rs.4,500
crore.
(1)5 (2)10
(3)15 (4)20
(5) None of these
72. The Union Cabinet on , 2011,
cleared the proposal for setting
up Rs.5,907-crore lignite-based
thermal power project by Neyveli
Lignite Corporation in Tamil
Nadu.
(l)May 17 (2) May 19
(3) May 16 (4) May 18
(5) None of these
73. Asian Development Bank, on
May 23, 2011. announced plans
to invest $60 million in three
venture capital funds to promote
development of clean energy in
(1) India (2) China
(3) Indonesia (4) Only 1 and 2
(5) None of these
74. The Reserve Bank of India, on
April 29, 2011, raised the limit
on FII investment in listed nonconvertible
debentures and
bonds issued by core segment
companies by $ billion.
(1)5 (2)10
(3)15 (4)20
(5) None of these
75. The new Index of Industrial
Production with base year ,
was approved by the Committee
of Secretaries in May 2011.
(1) 2004-05 (2) 2005-06
(3)2006-07 (4)2010-11
(5) None of these
76. Cognizant, a leading provider of
services, on May 6, 2011,
joined the Fortune 500, ranked
by Fortune Magazine.
(1) information technology
(2) consulting
(3) business process outsourcing
(4) all of the above
(5) None of these
77. On which date in 2011 did the
CCI notify the Competition
Commission of India (Procedure
in regard to the transaction of
business relating to combinations)
Regulations, 2011?
(1) May 11 (2) May 12
(3) May 4 (4) May. 7
(5) None of these
78. After entering Serbia last quarter
with its Solis range of tractors,
International Tractors
Ltd., part of the Rs.5,000-crore
-Sonalika group, entered in
May 2011.
(1) Croatia (2) Latvia
(3) Belarus (4) Turkey
(5) None of these
79. The Prime Minister's Trade and
Economic Relations Committee,
on April 30, 2011, gave its
nod for laimching free trade
agreement negotiations with
(1) Argentina (2) Chile
(3) Australia (4) Kenya
(5) None of these
80. Alastair Cook and were, on
May 5, 2011, appointed as the
new captains of England's oneday
international and Twenty20
teams respectively.
(1) Paul Collingwood
(2) Stuart Broad
(3) Andrew Strauss
(4) Kevin Pietersen
(5) None of these
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  #3  
Old 13th October 2014, 02:01 PM
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Join Date: May 2012
Default Re: SBI Associate Banks PO Exam Question Paper

81. UEFA, on May 6, 2011, handed
a three-match ban to Real
Madrid coach Jose Mourinho after
he made allegations of
favouritism towards .
(1) Barcelona (2) Toledo
(3) Pamplona (4) Vizcaya
(5) None of these
82. The AHF-MHC Hockey Academy
was inaugurated by Sultan
Azlan Shah, President, Asian
Hockey Federation, in on
May 9, 2011.
(1) Kuala Lumpur
(2)Ipoh
(3) Manila
(4) Jakarta
(5) None of these
83. Joseph Galibardy, the oldest living
Olympic hockey player who
had donned the India colours at
the 1936 Olympics in 1936,
passed away in Walthamstow
in May 2011.
(1) Moscow (2) Berlin
(3) London (4) New York
(5) None of these
84. The Basketball Federation of
India, in May 2011, hired Kenny
Natt, Pete Gaudet and _—
three American coaches to guide
the National men's and women's
teams.
(1) Jim Richardson
(2) Tim May
(3) Philip Huxley
(4) Zak Penwell
(5) None of these
85. Australian seamer and former
Test player , on May 18,
2011, announced his retirement
from international and State
cricket.
(1) Sean Tait (2) Brett Lee
(3) Stuart Clark
(4) John Hopes
(5) None of these
86. Which one of the following is not
a computer language?
(1) BASIC (2) COBOL
(3) LOTUS (4) FORTRAN
(5) None of these
87. The individual within the operations
group who ordinarily
uses a variety of keyboard devices,
is the
(1) Data Clerk
(2) Keypunch Operator
(3) Data Entry Clerk
(4) Computer Operator
(5) None of these .
88. An advantage of a distributed
word processing network is
(1) increased number of reports
handled
(2) less delay in inter-office communications
(3) greater corporate control over
outputs
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
89. Which of the following terms
could be used to describe the
concurrent processing of computer
programs via CRTs, on one
computer system?
(1) Time sharing
(2) On-line processing
(3) Interactive processing
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
90. The daily processing of corrections
to customer accounts best
exemplifies the processing mode
of
(1) batch processing
(2) real-time processing
(3) time-sharing
(4) off-line processing
(5) None of these
91. Network components are connected
to the same cable in the—
— topology.
(1) star (2) ring
(3) bus (4) mesh
(5) mixed
92. Two or more computers connected
to each other for sharing information
form a
(1) network (2) router
,(3) server (4) tunnel
(5) pipeline
93. A computer checks the of
user names and passwords for
a match before granting access.
(1) website (2) network
(3) backup file (4) database
(5) None of these
94. What is one of the methods of
Sales promotion?
(1) Consumer Promotion
Method
(2) Dealer Promotion Method
(3) Market Method
(4) Competitor Method
(5) Only 1 and 2
95. Free samples can be distributed
as —
(1) Door-to-Door
(2) Through Retail shop
(3) With another product
(4) Under some competition
(5) All of above
96. A certificate which enables a
consumer to get a certain reduction
in price on next purchase of
particular product is called .
, (1) Discount
(2) Discount coupon
(3) Cash Discount
(4) Trade Discount
(5) None of these
SBI & SBI ASSOCIATES PO EXAM
97. 20% to 30% discount on all products
of Gandhi Ashram on
Gandhi Jayanti is an example
of
(!) Discount
(2) Reduction in Price
(3) Trade Fair
(4) Free Gift (5) Sold
98. Under which method producer
announce that with the purchase
of a particular product,
another product will be given at
a very cheap rate ?•
(1) Cheap Bargain
(2) Trade Discount
(3) Reduction in Price
(4) Free Gift
(5) After Discount
99. Under which method consumer
gives a guarantee to maintain
the product in proper condition
till a limited period from the
date of purchase ?
(1) After sale service
(2) Discount
(3) Discount coupon
(4) Discounted Rate.'
(5)Advertisement
100. Which method is used to encourage
dealers to sell more product?
(1) Dealer Promotion Method
(2) Consumer Promotion
Method
(3) Product Promotion Method
(4) Market Promotion Method
(5) Sales Promotion Method
DATA ANALYSIS &
DATA INTERPRETATION
Directions (101-105) : Study
the following graph carefully to answer
the questions that follow :
Number of televisions (in thousands)
manufactured by three
different companies
in six different years
101. If 25 per cent of the number of
televisions manufactured by
company A over all the years together
were black and white,
then what was the number of coloured
televisions manufactured
by company-A over all the
years together ?
(1) 1.4 lacs (2) 14,000
(3) 1.8 lacs (4) 18,000 ' '
(5) 1.5 lacs

102. If the cost of manufacturing one
television in the year 2008 was
^ 12,000, then what was the total
expenditure of company G for
manufacturing all the televisions
in the same year ?
(1). ? 40 crore (2) f 52 crore
(3) f 5.2 crore (4) f 4 crore
(5) f 42 crore
103. What was percentage increase
in the number of televisions
manufactured by company-C in
year 2008 as compared to the
previous year ?
(1)40 (2)45
(3)30 (4)35
(5) None of these
104. What was the approximate average
number of televisions
manufactured by company B
over all the years together ?
(1)30677 (2)30566
(3)40566 (4)40833
(5) 43055
105. What was the respective ratio
between the number of televisions
manufactured by company-
B in year 2006 and the number
of televisions manufactured
by company-A in year 2005 ?
(1)5:4 (2)9:5
" (3)4:3 (4)9:7
(5) None of these
Directions (106-110) : Study the table carefully to answer the questions
that follow :
Number of trees planted (in Hundreds) by five different NGOs in six
different years in two different states
NGO A B C D E
Year State-A State-B State-A State-B State-A State-B State-A State-B State-A State-E
2005 14.2 8.5 14.2 4.4 4.5 4.4 4.5 2.1 9.4 3.5
2006 21.6 5.4 7.9 7.2 6.9 4.4 5.4 4.3 7.2 4.7
2007 13.5 8.8 7.7 4.8 5.4 3.8 6.3 6.3 7.4 3.2
2008 12.4 9.6 10.4 6.4 7.2 8.2 9.6 4.4 5.6 4.2
2009 10.8 12.4 12.6 6.2 8.6 6.4 8.4 5.2 6.9 3.8
2010 12.2 14.2 7.5 4.2 11.3 9.3 6.3 5.4 12,8 6.4
106. What was the respective ratio
between the number of trees
planted by NGO-A in the year
2006 in state-A and the number
of trees planted by NGO-E
in the year 2008 in state-B ?
(1)36:11
(2) 36 : 7
(3) 11 : 7
(4) 14 : 9
(5) None of these
107. What was the average number
of trees planted by NGO-B in
the state-A over all the years together
?
(1) 1005 (2) 1050
(3)1015 (4)1205
(5) None of these
108. What was the approximate
percentage decrease in the number
of trees planted by NGO-C
in state-B in the year 2009 as
compared to the previous year ?
(1)28 (2)22
(3)26 . (4) 16
(5)20
109. Which NGO planted the second
lowest number of trees in both
the states together in the year
2009?
U)A (2)B
(3)C (4)D
(5)E
110. Number of trees planted by
NGO-D in the state-B in the
year 2007 was approximately
what percentage of the number
of trees planted by NGO-A in
the state-A in the year 2009 ?
(1)46 • (2)52
(3)70 (4)58
(5)64
Directions (111- 115): Study
the following table carefully to answer
the questions that follow :
Number of flights cancelled by
five different airlines in six
different years
Airlines
Year
P Q ft S T
2005 240 450 305 365 640
2006 420 600 470 446 258
2007 600 680 546 430 610
2008 160 208 708 550 586
2009 140 640 656 250 654
2010 290 363 880 195 483
111. What was the difference between
the highest number of
flights cancelled by airlines-Q
and the lowest number of flight's
cancelled by airlines-T out of all
the six years ?
(1)446
(2)456
(3)432
(4) 442
(5) None of these
112. What was the approximate per
cent increase in number of
flights cancelled by airlines S in
the year 2008 as compared to
previous year ?
(1)127 (2)28
(3)150 (4)45
(5)117
113. What was the average number
of flights cancelled by the airlines
P, R, S and T in the year
2008 ?
(1)551.5 (2)501
(3)405 (4)442.4
(5)"None of these
114. If 40 per cent of flights in the
year 2010 by airlines-R were
cancelled due to bad weather
conditions and rest were cancelled
due to technical fault.
What was the number of flights
cancelled due to technical fault?
(1)528 (2)568
(3)468 . (4)548
(5) None of these
115. Number of flights cancelled by
airlines-P and R together in the
year 2007 was approximately
what percentage of number of
flights cancelled by airlines-S in
the year 2005 ?
(1)356 (2)280
(3)265 (4)340
(5)314
Directions (116-120) : Study
the information carefully to answer
the questions that follow.
In a sports event there are 5
sports viz. Hockey, Cricket, Tennis,
Badminton and Baseball. There is a
total number of 800 players in the
sports event. The ratio between female
and male players is 1': 3 respectively.
Twenty five per cent of the total
players are in Cricket. There are
'110 badminton players. 10 per cent
of the total players are in Tennis.
Hockey players are double the number
of badminton players. Remaining
players are in Baseball. 30 per cent of
cricket players are female. Half the
female cricketers are equal to female
badminton players. 10 per cent of total
hockey players are equal to the
number of female players in Tennis.
There are equal number of females in
Hockey and Baseball.
116. What is the respective ratio between
the female players in
Hockey and the male players in
Badminton ?
(1)20:13 (2)11:20
(3) 13 : 20 (4) 11 : 23
(5) None of these
117. What is the total number of
males in Hockey, Cricket and
Baseball together ?
(1)464 (2)454
(3)462 (4)432
(5) None of these
118. Number of female players in
Base ball is what percent of
male players in Hockey ?
(1)25 (2)34
(3)24 (4)15
(5) None of these
119. What is the difference between
the male players in Baseball
and total number of players in
Tennis ?
(1)58 (2)76
(3)56 (4)68
(5) None of these
120. In which sports female players
are maximum and male players
are minimum respectively?
(1) Cricket and Badminton
(2) Cricket and Hockey
(3) Baseball and Cricket
(4) Cricket and Tennis
(5) Tennis and Hockey
Directions (121- 125) : Study
the following graph carefully to answer
the questions.
Amounts invested (in ? thousands)
by three people in
schemes over the years
YEARS
121. What is the average amount invested
in the year 2009 by all
the three people together ?
(1)` 28,350
(4) ` 45,000
(5) None of these
122. What is the per cent decrease in
the amount invested by C in the
year 2007 from the previous
year ?
(1) 11.3 (2) 13.5
(3)12.5 (4)14.3
(5) None of these
123. What is the respective ratio of
total amount invested by B in
the years 2008 and 2010 together
to the total amount invested
by C in those two years
together ?
(1) 7 : 8 (2) 14 : 15
(3) 6 : 7 (4) 12 : 13
(5)'None of these
124. The amount invested by A in the
year 2006 is approximately
what per cent of the total
amount invested by him over all
the years together ?
(1)15 (2)19
(3)21 (4)8'
(5) 11 .
125. What was the total amount invested
by all the three people
together in the year 2005 ?
(D)` 10,000
(2)` 10,00,000
(3)` 1,000
(4) ` 100
(5) None of these
Directions (126-130) : Study
the information given below and answer
the questions that follow.
A building consists of men and
women who spend their leisure time
in watching movies, learning dance
and learning singing. 8 men, who form
ten percent of the total number of men
in the building, learn to dance. The
total number of women in the building
is 62.5 per cent of the total number
of men in the building. Twenty
four per cent of the total number of
women learn to sing. One-fifth of the
total number of women watch movies.
The ratio of the number of men
watching movies to the number of
women doing the same is 13 : 2 respectively.
126. What is the respective ratio of
the number of men learning
dance to the number of women
doing the same ?
(1) 8 : 11 (2) 5 : 9
(3) 2 : 7 (4) 3 : 5
(5) None of these
127. The total number of women in
the building is approximately
what percent ot the total number
of members (men and women
together) in the building ?
(1)45 (2)33
(3)42 (4)27
(5)38
128. What is the number of women
learning dance ?
(1)28 (2)22
(3) 30 (4) 24
(5) None of these
129. The number of men who like
watching movies is what percent
of the total number of men
in the building ?
(1)79.75 (2) 83.45
(3) 81.25 (4) 72.15 '
(5) None of these
130. What is the total number of
members (men and women together)
learning singing ?
(1)21 (2) 13
(3) 18 (4) 15
(5) None of these
Directions (131-135) : Each of
the questions given below consists of
a question and two statements numbered
I and II given below it. You have
to decide whether the data provided
in the statements sufficient to answer
the question. Read both the statements
and
Give answer (1) if the data in
statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient
to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in
statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data
in statement I alone are not sufficient
to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in
statement I alone or in statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (4) if the data in
both the statements I and II are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in
both the statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the question.
131. What is the salary of C, in a
group of A, B, C, D and E whose
average salary is X 48,250 ?
I. C's sa&ry is 1.5 times B's
salary.
II. Average salary of A and B is
` 23,500.
132. What is the per cent profit
earned by selling a car for f
6,40,000 ?
I. The amount of profit earned
on selling the car was
` 3,20,000.
II. The selling price of the car
was twice the cost price.
133. What is the rate of interest
p.c.p.a. ?
I. An amount of ` 14,350 gives
a simple interest of
` 11,480 in four years.
II. The amount doubles itself in
5 years with simple interest.
I. The area of the rectangle is
252 sq. rats.
II. The ratio of length to
breadth of the rectangle is 9
: 7 respectively.
Directions (136-140) : Study
the following table carefully to answer
the questions that follow :
Number of people (in hundreds)
participating in the Annual Fair
from six different towns over
the years
Year
Town
P Q R S T U
2005 4.2 5.5 4.5 5.8 6.0 5.7
2006 5.1 5.3 6.2 5.7 6.1 6.2
2007 6.3 5.1 6.5 5.3 5.9 6.6
2008 4.4 5.0 5.9 5.1 5.3 5.1
2009 5.8 5.4 5.4 4.9 5.5 4.4
2010 6.2 6.8 4.9 4.8 5.7 4.3
136. Number of people participating
in the Fair from town P in the
year 2010 forms approximately
what per cent of the total
number of people participating
in the Fair from that town over
all the years together ?
(1) 19 (2) 24
(3) 27 (4)12
(5) 15
137. What is the respective ratio of
total number of people participating
in the Fair from town S
in the years 2006 and 2007 together
to the number of people
participating in the Fair from
town R in the same years ?
(1)8:9 (2)110:127
(3) 136 : 143 (4) 11 : 12
(5) None of these
138. What is the per cent increase in
the number of people participating
in the Fair from town T in
the year 2009 from the previous
year ? (rounded off to two digits
after decimal)
(1)4.15 (2) 3.77
(3) 1:68 (4) 2.83
(5) None of these
139. What is the average number of
people participating in the Fair
from town U over all the years
together ? (rounded off the nearest
integer)
134. What is the two digit number ?
I. The difference between the
two digits of the number is9
II. The product of the two digits
of the number is 0.
135. What is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(1)515 (2)523
(3) 567 (4) 541
(5) 538
140. How many people participated
in the Fair from all the towns
together in the year 2005 ?
(1)3290 (2) 3100
(3) 3240 (4) 3170
(5) None of these
Directions (141-145) : Study
the following pie-charts carefully to
answer the questions that follow :
Percentage break-up of number
of children in five different
villages and breakup of children
attending school from those
villages
Total Number of Children = 2040
Total Children attending
School = 1450
141. What is the respective ratio of
total number of children from
village O to the number of children
attending school from the
same village ?
(1)204 : 145 (2) 179 : 131
(3) .167 : 111 (4) 266 : 137
(5) None of these
142. What is the number of children
attending school from village N
?
(1) 145 (2) 159
(3) .170 (4) 164
(5) None of these
143. What is the total number of children
not attending school from
villages M and N together ?
(1)69 (2)56
(2)76 (4)63
(5) None of these
144. What is the total number of children
from villages P and M together
?
(1) 1422 (2) 1142
(3) 1122 (4) 1211
(5) None of these t
145. The number of children attending
school from village L is approximately
what per cent of
the total number of children
from that village ?
(1)78 (2)72
. (3) 57 (4) 84
(5) 66
Directions (146-150) : Study
the following table carefully and answer
the questions given below it:
Number of candidates appearing
for an interview for a post in
various Banks and percentage of
candidates qualifying
Banks Candidates %of
Appearing Candidates
Qualifying
H 1500 14
I 2200 26
J 3000 17
K 980 20
L 1200 28
M 2500 21
146. The number of candidates who
did not qualify in bank K was
approximately what percent of
the candidates who did not
, qualify in bank I?
(1)48 (2)51
(3) 42 (4) 44
(5) 53
147. What was the respective ratio
of the number of candidates who
qualified in bank H to the number
of candidates who qualified
in bank L?
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 6
(3)3:7 (4)5:8
(5) None of these
148. What was the average number
of candidates who appeared for
the interview in bank H, J and
L together?
(1) 1800 (2) 2000
(3) 1500 (4) 1700
(5) None of these
149. What" was the difference between
the number of candidates
who qualified in banks I and J
together and the number of candidates
who did not qualify in
the same banks?
(1) 3028 (2) 3040
(3) 3036 (4) 3032
(5) None of these.
150. What was the total number of
candidates qualifying in banks
K, L and M together?
(1) 1042 (2) 1057
(3) 1050 (4) 1045
(5) None of these
REASONING (HIGH LEVEL)
Directions (151 -155): In the
following questions, the symbols @,
©, $, % and ⋆ are used with the following
meaning as illustrated below:
'P © Q' means 'P is not smaller
than Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is not greater
than Q'.
'P ⋆ Q' means 'P is neither
smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither
greater than nor smaller than Q'.
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither
greater than nor equal to Q'.
Now in each of the following
questions assuming the given statements
to be true, find which of the
conclusions I, .11 and III given below
them is/are definitely true ?
151. Statements:
F% T, T @ J, J ⋆ W
Conclusions: I. J @ F
II. "J ⋆ F
III. W$T
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Only III is true
• (4) Only either I or II is true
(5) Only either I or II and III
are true
152. Statements:
R ⋆ D, D © K, K $ M
Conclusions: I. M ⋆ R
II. K $ R
III. D ⋆ M
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only II and III are true
153. Statements:
Z © F, F $ M, M % K
Conclusions: I. K ⋆ F
II.Z⋆M
III.K⋆Z
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Only III is true
(4) Only II and III are true
(5) None of these
154. Statements:
H@B, B © R, A $ R
Conclusions: I. B ⋆ A
II. R % H
III.A$H "
(1) Only I- and II are true
(2) Only I and III are true
(3) Only II and III are true
(4) All I, II and III are true
(5) None of these
155. Statements:
M$J, J⋆T, K©T
Conclusions: I. K ⋆ J
II. M$T
III. M $ K
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only II and III are true
Directions (156-160): Study
the following information carefully
and answer the questions given below
:
B, D, M, K, P, Q, W and H are
sitting around a circle facing at the
centre. M is to the immediate right of
B who is fourth to the right of K. P is
second to the left of B and is fourth to
the right of W. Q is second to the right
of D' who is second to the right of H.
156. Who is third to the right of B ?
(1)W (2)M
(3)K (4)H
(5) None of these
157. Which of the following represents
the immediate neighbours
of D ?
(1)PQ (2)KH
(3) PH, (4) KQ
(5)PK
158. Who is third to the right of W ?
(DP (2)D
(3)K . (4)R
(5) Data, inadequate
159. Who is second to the left of P ?
(DD (2)H
(3)K
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
160. Who is to the immediate left of
B?
(1)Q
(2)P
(3)W
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
161. If the first 6 letters of the English
Alphabet series are written
in reversed order, then the
next 6 letters are written in reversed
order and so on, and at
the end Y is interchanged by Z,
then which letter is fourth letter
to the right of 13th letter
from the left?
(DM (2)N
(3) Q (4) P
(5) None of these
162. If the English Alphabet series
is written in the reverse order
and every alternate letter
starting from Y is dropped,
which letter will be exactly in
the middle of the remaining letters
of the Alphabet series?
(1)L (2)0
(3)M (4)N
(5) None of these
163. If the letters in each of the following
five groups of letters are
first rearranged in the alphabetical
order and then the
groups of letters so formed are
rearranged as in a dictionary,
which letter group would have
its group ofletters in the MIDDLE
among the five lettergroups?
MEET, DEAF, ROAD, CODE,
LACK
(l)LACK (2) MEET
(3) ROAD (4) DEAF
(5) None of these
164. The letters skipped in between
the adjacent letters in the series
are followed by equal space.
Which of the following series
observes this rule?
(l)HKNGSW (2)EIMQVZ
(3) SUXADF (4) RVZDHL
(5) None of these
165. Select the series in which the
letters skipped in between adjacent
letters do not decrease
in order
(DMGVFK (2)PJXHM
(3) EQZFI (4) GWIQIJ
(5) None of these
166. A cow runs 20 metres towards
East and turns to right, runs
10 metres and turns to right,
runs 9 metres and again turns
to left, runs 5 metres and then
turns to left, runs 12 metres
and finally turns to left and
runs 6 metres. Now which direction
is the cow facing?
(1) North (2) East
(3) South (4.) West
(5) None of these
167. A boy started walking positioning
his back towards the sun.
After sometimes, he turned
left, then turned right and then
towards the left again. In which
direction is he going now?
(1) East or West
(2) North or West
(3) South or West
(4) North or South
(5) None of these
168. If Thursday was the day after
the day before yesterday five
days ago, what is the least .number
of days ago when Sunday
was three days before the day
after tomorrow?
(1)1 (2)2
(3)3 (4)4
(5) None of these
169. In a row of boys facing North, a
boy is thirteen from the left.
When shifted to his right by
three places, he becomes seventeenth
from right end of the
row. How many boys are there
in the row?
(1)32 ! (2)31
(3)33 (4)30
(5) None of these
170. 136 vehicles are parked in aparking
lot in a single row. After
the first car there is one
scooter. After the second car,
there are two scooters. After
the third car, there are three
scooters and so on. Work out the
number of scooters in the second
half of the row.
(1)61 (2)62
(3)63 (4)64
(5) None of these
Directions (171 -176): In each
question below are four statements
follovvod by four conclusions numbered
I, II, III and IV. You have to take
the four given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the four given
statements disregarding commonly
known facts. Then decide which of the .
answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is correct,
171. Statements:
All belts are rollers.
Some rollers are wheels.
All wheels are mats.
Some mats are cars.
Conclusions:
I. Some mats are rollers.
II. Some mats are belts.
III. Some cars are rollers.
IV. Some rollers are belts.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I, III and IV follow
(3) Only I and IV follow
(4) Only II, III and IV follow
(5) None of these
172. Statements:
Some tyres are rains.
Some rains are flowers.
All flowers are jungles.
All jungles are tubes.
Conclusions
I. Some jungles are tyres.
II. Some tubes are rains.
III. Some jungles are rains.
IV. Some tubes are flowers.
(1) Only I, II and III follow
(2) Only II, III and IV follow
(3) Only I, III and IV follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
173. Statements:
All desks are chairs.
All chairs are tables.
All tables are boxes.
All boxes are trunks.
Conclusions:
I. Some trunks are tables.
II. All chairs are boxes.
III.Some boxes are desks.
IV. All desks are trunks.
(1) Only I, II and III follow
(2) Only I, II and IV follow
(3) Only II, III and IV follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
174. Statements:
Some birds are goats.
Some goats are horses.
Some horses are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions:
I. Some tigers are goats.
II. No tiger is goat.
III. Some lions are birds.
IV. No lion is bird.
(1) Only either I or II follows
(2) Only either III or IV follows
(3) Only either I or II and either
III or IV follow
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) None of these
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Old 13th October 2014, 02:01 PM
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Default Re: SBI Associate Banks PO Exam Question Paper

175. Statements:
All papers are bottles.
All bottles are cups.
Some cups are jugs.
Some jugs are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some plates are cups.
II. Some plates are bottles.
Ill Some cups are papers.
IV. Some bottles are papers. -
(1) Only III and IV follow
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) Only II and IV follow
(5) None of these
176. Statements:
All bulbs are wires.
No wire is cable.
Some cables are brushes.
All brushes are paints
Conclusions:
I. Some paints are cables.
II. Some wires are bulbs.
III. Some brushes are wires.
IV. Some cables are bulbs.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only IV follows
Directions (177-182): A word
and number arrangement machine
when given an input line of words and
numbers rearranges them following
a particular rule in each step. The following
is an illustration of input and
rearrangement.
Input :
but 32 71 glory fair south 65 84
Step I : south but 32 71 glory fair
65 84
Step II : south 84 but 32 71 glory fair
65
StepIII: south 84 glory but 32 71 fair
65
StepIV : south 84 glory 71 but 32 fair
65
StepV : south 84 glory 71 fair but
32 65
StepVI : south 84 glory 71 fair 65 but
32
and Step VI is the last step of
the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the
above steps, find out in each of the
following questions the appropriate
step for the given input.
177. Step III of an input is :
year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house
39
How many more steps will be
required to complete the rearrangement
?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) Five
(5) None of these
178. Input : any how 49 24 far wide
34 69
Which of the following steps will
be the last but one ?
(1)VI (2) VII
(3) V (4) VIII
(5) None of these
179. Step II of an input is :
town 74 pair 15 31 nice job 42
Which of the following is definitely
the input ?
(1) pair 15 31 town nice job 42
74
(2) pair 15 town 31 74 nice job
42
(3) pair 15 town 74 31 nice job
42 -
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
180. Input : play over 49 37 12
match now 81
Which of the following will be
step IV ?
(1) play 81 over 49 37 match now
(2) play 8 over 49 37 12 match
now
(3) play 81 over 49 now 37 match
12
(4) There will be no such step
(5) None of these
181. Step II of an input is :
war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24
Which of the following steps will
be the last ?
(DV (2) VI
(3) IV (4) VII
(5) None of these
182. Input : shower fall water 34 51
67 98 goal
How many steps will be required
to complete the rearrangement ?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Six • (4) Five
(5) None of these
Directions (183-185): In each
question below is given a group of letters
followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to find out which of
the combinations correctly represents
the group of letters based on the following
coding system and the conditions
that follow and mark the number
of that combination as your answer.
If none of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters,
mark (5) i.e. 'None of these' as your
answer.
Letter R D A E J M K T a u i P W H F
Digit/
Symbol
Code 4 8 5 $ ⋆ 1 2 6 % © 7 @ 3 9 #
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a consonant
and the last letter is a vowel both
are to be coded as 8.
(ii) If both the first and the last
letters are consonants both are to be
coded as the Code for the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is a vowel
and the last letter is a consonant their
codes are to be interchanged.
183. HIFMJU
(1) ©7#1⋆9 (2) 97#1 ⋆9
(3) ©7#1⋆© (4) S7#l⋆5
(5) None of these
184. AKTRBW
(1) 3264%5 (2) 3264%3
(3) 324%65 (4) 5264%3
(5) None of these
185. EBPDRI
(1) 7%@847 (2) 7%@84$
(3) $%@847 (4) $%8@47
(5) None of these
Directions (186 -190): Below
is given a passage followed by several
possible inferences which can be
drawn from the facts stated in the
passage. You have to examine each
inference separately in the context of
the passage and decide upon its degree
of truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if the inference
is "definitely true" i.e. it properly
follows from the statement of
facts given.
Mark answer (2) if the inference
is "probably true" though not
"definitely true" in the light of the facts
given.
Mark answer (3) if the "data
are inadequate" i.e. from the facts
given you cannot say whether the inference
is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (4) if the inference
is "probably false" though not
"definitely false" in the light of the
facts given.
Mark answer (5) if the inference
is "definitely false" i.e. it cannot
possibly be drawn from the facts given
or it contradicts the given facts.
A recent report that satellite
data shows groundwater levels in
northern India depleting by as much
as a foot per year, over the past decade,
is a matter of concern. The clear
writing on the wall is that India faces
a turbulent water future and veritable
crisis without proactive policy and
sustainable practices. Besides the
poor monsoon this season and the resultant
drought situation pan-India
calls for sustained policy focus on the
water economy. A whole series of glaring
anomalies do need to be addressed.
For one, there's far too much
reliance on groundwater. For another
our water infrastructure for storage
and supply is sorely inadequate.
Worse, policy distortions in artificially
under pricing key agri-inputs
like power have perversely
incentivised cultivation of water intensive
crops like paddy in-traditionally
wheat growing areas.
186. India has failed to take measures
to recharge groundwater
adequately in northern part.
187. Wheat cultivation in India requires
comparatively more water
than paddy.
188. Water level in other parts of India
is stable during the last decade.
189. India has now put in place a system
to reduce over dependence
on groundwater.
190. Adequate monsoon helps in
drawing less ground water for
cultivation and thus preserve
balance.
Directions ( 191-195) : In
making decisions about important
questions, it is desirable to be able to
distinguish between "strong" arguments
and "weak" arguments.
"Strong" arguments must be both
important and directly related to bh e
question. "Weak" arguments may net
be directly related to the question
and may be of minor importance or
may be related to the trivial aspects
of the question.
Each question below is followed
by three arguments numbered I, II
and III. You have to decide which of
the argument(s) is/are "strong".
191. Should the Government restrict
use of electricity fo> each household
depending tipon the requirement
?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will help government
tide over the problem of inadequate
generation of electricity.
II. No, every citizen has right to
consume electricity as per their
requirement as they pay for using
electricity.
III. No, the Government does not
have the machinery to put such a
restriction on use of electricity.
(1) Only I is strong
(2) Only II is strong
(3) Only I and II are strong
(4) Only II and III are strong
(5) All I, II and III are strong
192. Should the Government order
closure of all educational institutions
for a month to avoid fast
spreading of the contagious viral
infection ?
Arguments:
I. No, closure of educational institution
alone is not the solution
for curbing spread of viral infection.
II. No, students will visit crowded
places like malls, markets, playgrounds
etc. in more numbers
and spread the disease, as they
will have lot of spare time at
their disposal.
III. Yes, young persons are more
prone to get affected by the viral
infection and hence they
should remain indoors.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only I is strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only 1 and II are strong
(5) All 1, II and III are strong
193. Should the Government ban export
of all types of food grains
for' the next one year to tide over
the unprotected drought situation
in the the country ?
Arguments:
I. Yes, there is no other way to provide
food to its citizen during the
year.
II. No, the Government does not
have its jurisdiction over private
exporters for banning exporters.
III. Yes, the Go\ eminent should not
allow the exporters to export
food grains and procure all the
food grains held by such exporters
and make it available for
home consumption.
(1) Only I and II are strong
(2) Only II and III are strong
(3) Only I and III are strong
(4) All I, II and III are strong
(5) None of these
194. Should there be a common syllabus
for all subjects in graduate
courses in all the universities
across the country ?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this is the only way to
spring in uniformity in the education
system in the country.
II. Yes, it will help standardise the
quality of graduation certificates
being given by different
universities in the country.
III. No, each university should have
the autonomy to decide its syllabus
based on the specific requirement
of the university.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only I is strong
(3) Only II is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) Only II and III are strong
195. Should all those students who
failed in one or two subjects in
HSC be allowed to take admission
in degree courses and continue
their study subject to their
successfully passing in the
supplementary examination ?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will help the students
to complete their education
without a break of one year.
II. Yes, this is a forward looking
strategy to help the students
and motivate them for higher
studies.
II. No, such students do not choose
to continue their- studies without
having passed in all the subjects
in HSC.
(1) Only I is strong
(2) Only II is strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only either II or III and I are
strong
(5) None of these
196. A, B, C, D and E are five students
in a class. D did not enter
along with A or E but entered
before C. B did not enter before
C but entered along with A. E
was not the last to enter.
Which of the following is definitely
true ?
(l)C entered the class only after
D
(2) D entered the class only after
E
(3) B entered the class after A
(4) A entered the class after D
(5) None of these
197. D is brother of K. M is sister of
K. T is father of R who is brother
of M. F is mother of K. At least
how many sons does T and F
have?
(l)Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
198. Statement : In a move thai
could provide some respite to
ailing airline companies, the
government is looking at allowing
them to import jet fuel on
their own.
Which of the following can be
definitely concluded from the
above statement ?
(1) Airline companies in the
past have imported jet fuel
(2) The price of imported jet fuel
is less than the price of jet
fuel available in the local
market.
(3) Central Government will
lose huge amount of money
if jet fuel is imported.
(4) Airline companies are making
considerable profit in the
recent months
(5) None of these
199. Statement : Some of the
country's largest food beverage
and pharma companies may be
forced to import sugar directly
as the government plans to improve
stock limits on industrial
consumers to ease the shortage
in grocery shops and cool down
prices that are at a 28 month
high.
Which of the following substantiates
the views expressed in
the above statement ?
(1) Food, beverage and pharma
companies were not allowed
in the past to import sugar.
(2) Sugar prices have been fluctuating
for the past seven
months.
(3) Government does not have
authority to restrict purchase
of sugar from the open
market.
(4) Import of sugar for commercial
use will help lowering
down the sugar price in the
retail market.
(5) None of these
200. Statement: A recent review reported
that India's fashion industry
has bees severely affected
due to a slump in demand
for luxury apparel, leather
goods; besides'. gems and
jewellery in domestic as well international
markets.
Which of the following contradicts
the views expressed in the
above statement ?
(1) India's fashion industry has
been growing till last year
(2) Government has helped
India's fashion industry to
grow in the past
(3) Domestic market of fashion
goods reflects the sentiments
of international market.
(4) Share of fashion goods -
manufactured by India is
negligible in the international
market.
(5) None of these
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